Mesorat%20hashas for Bava Metzia 188:25

רבי יונתן אומר משמע שניהם כאחד ומשמע אחד בפני עצמו

But is not this 'or' needed as a disjunctive? For I might think that he is responsible only if it is injured and also dies; therefore Scripture states otherwise. Now, on R. Jonathan's view, it is well; but on R. Joshia's, what can you say? For it has been taught: For any man that curseth his father and his mother [shall surely be put to death]:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' Lev. XX, 9. ');">²³</span> from this I know only [that he is punished for cursing] his father and his mother; whence do I know [the same] if he cursed his father without his mother, or his mother without his father? From the passage, his father and his mother he hath cursed; his blood shall be upon him: implying a man that cursed his father; a man that cursed his mother:<span class="x" onmousemove="('comment',' At the beginning of the sentence that curseth is in immediate proximity to his father: at the end, cursing is mentioned nearest to his mother, shewing that each is separate. ');">²⁴</span> this is R. Joshia's opinion. R. Jonathan said: The [beginning of the] verse implies either the two together or each separately,

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